Objective The purpose of this study was to estimate the performance of a single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)–based noninvasive prenatal test for 5 microdeletion syndromes. Study Design Four hundred ...sixty-nine samples (358 plasma samples from pregnant women, 111 artificial plasma mixtures) were amplified with the use of a massively multiplexed polymerase chain reaction, sequenced, and analyzed with the use of the Next-generation Aneuploidy Test Using SNPs algorithm for the presence or absence of deletions of 22q11.2, 1p36, distal 5p, and the Prader-Willi/Angelman region. Results Detection rates were 97.8% for a 22q11.2 deletion (45/46) and 100% for Prader-Willi (15/15), Angelman (21/21), 1p36 deletion (1/1), and cri-du-chat syndromes (24/24). False-positive rates were 0.76% for 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (3/397) and 0.24% for cri-du-chat syndrome (1/419). No false positives occurred for Prader-Willi (0/428), Angelman (0/442), or 1p36 deletion syndromes (0/422). Conclusion SNP-based noninvasive prenatal microdeletion screening is highly accurate. Because clinically relevant microdeletions and duplications occur in >1% of pregnancies, regardless of maternal age, noninvasive screening for the general pregnant population should be considered.
Adjuvant chemotherapy has reduced the risk of tumor recurrence and improved survival in patients with resected colorectal cancer. Potential utility of circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) prior to and post ...surgery has been reported across various solid tumors. We initiated a new type of adaptive platform trials to evaluate the clinical benefits of ctDNA analysis and refine precision adjuvant therapy for resectable colorectal cancer, named CIRCULATE‐Japan including three clinical trials. The GALAXY study is a prospectively conducted large‐scale registry designed to monitor ctDNA for patients with clinical stage II to IV or recurrent colorectal cancer who can undergo complete surgical resection. The VEGA trial is a randomized phase III study designed to test whether postoperative surgery alone is noninferior to the standard therapy with capecitabine plus oxaliplatin for 3 months in patients with high‐risk stage II or low‐risk stage III colon cancer if ctDNA status is negative at week 4 after curative surgery in the GALAXY study. The ALTAIR trial is a double‐blind, phase III study designed to establish the superiority of trifluridine/tipiracil as compared with placebo in patients with resected colorectal cancer who show circulating tumor–positive status in the GALAXY study. Therefore, CIRCULATE‐Japan encompasses both “de‐escalation” and “escalation” trials for ctDNA‐negative and ‐positive patients, respectively, and helps to answer whether measuring ctDNA postoperatively has prognostic and/or predictive value. Our ctDNA‐guided adaptive platform trials will accelerate clinical development toward further precision oncology in the field of adjuvant therapy. Analysis of ctDNA status could be utilized as a predictor of risk stratification for recurrence and to monitor the effectiveness of adjuvant chemotherapy. ctDNA is a promising, noninvasive tumor biomarker that can aid in tumor monitoring throughout disease management.
CIRCULATE‐Japan encompasses both “de‐escalation” and “escalation” trials for circulating tumor DNA–negative and –positive patients, respectively, and helps to answer whether measuring circulating tumor DNA postoperatively has prognostic and/or predictive value. Our circulating tumor DNA–guided adaptive platform trials will accelerate clinical development toward further precision oncology in the field of adjuvant therapy.
Whole-chromosome imbalances affect over half of early human embryos and are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. While these errors frequently arise in oocyte meiosis, many such whole-chromosome ...abnormalities affecting cleavage-stage embryos are the result of chromosome missegregation occurring during the initial mitotic cell divisions. The first wave of zygotic genome activation at the 4-8 cell stage results in the arrest of a large proportion of embryos, the vast majority of which contain whole-chromosome abnormalities. Thus, the full spectrum of meiotic and mitotic errors can only be detected by sampling after the initial cell divisions, but prior to this selective filter. Here, we apply 24-chromosome preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) to 28,052 single-cell day-3 blastomere biopsies and 18,387 multi-cell day-5 trophectoderm biopsies from 6,366 in vitro fertilization (IVF) cycles. We precisely characterize the rates and patterns of whole-chromosome abnormalities at each developmental stage and distinguish errors of meiotic and mitotic origin without embryo disaggregation, based on informative chromosomal signatures. We show that mitotic errors frequently involve multiple chromosome losses that are not biased toward maternal or paternal homologs. This outcome is characteristic of spindle abnormalities and chaotic cell division detected in previous studies. In contrast to meiotic errors, our data also show that mitotic errors are not significantly associated with maternal age. PGS patients referred due to previous IVF failure had elevated rates of mitotic error, while patients referred due to recurrent pregnancy loss had elevated rates of meiotic error, controlling for maternal age. These results support the conclusion that mitotic error is the predominant mechanism contributing to pregnancy losses occurring prior to blastocyst formation. This high-resolution view of the full spectrum of whole-chromosome abnormalities affecting early embryos provides insight into the cytogenetic mechanisms underlying their formation and the consequences for human fertility.
To estimate performance of a single-nucleotide polymorphism-based noninvasive prenatal screen for fetal aneuploidy in high-risk and low-risk populations on single venopuncture.
One thousand ...sixty-four maternal blood samples from 7 weeks of gestation and beyond were included; 1,051 were within specifications and 518 (49.3%) were low risk. Cell-free DNA was amplified, sequenced, and analyzed using the Next-generation Aneuploidy Test Using SNPs algorithm. Samples were called as trisomies 21, 18, 13, or monosomy X, or euploid, and male or female.
Nine hundred sixty-six samples (91.9%) successfully generated a cell-free DNA result. Among these, sensitivity was 100% for trisomy 21 (58/58, confidence interval CI 93.8-100%), trisomy 13 (12/12, CI 73.5-100%), and fetal sex (358/358 female, CI 99.0-100%; 418/418 male, CI 99.1-100%), 96.0% for trisomy 18 (24/25, CI 79.7-99.9%), and 90% for monosomy X (9/10, CI 55.5-99.8%). Specificity for trisomies 21 and 13 was 100% (905/905, CI 99.6-100%; and 953/953, CI 99.6-100%, respectively) and for trisomy 18 and monosomy X was 99.9% (938/939, CI 99.4-100%; and 953/954, CI 99.4-100%, respectively). However, 16% (20/125) of aneuploid samples did not return a result; 50% (10/20) had a fetal fraction below the 1.5th percentile of euploid pregnancies. Aneuploidy rate was significantly higher in these samples (P<.001, odds ratio 9.2, CI 4.4-19.0). Sensitivity and specificity did not differ in low-risk and high-risk populations.
This noninvasive prenatal screen performed with high sensitivity and specificity in high-risk and low-risk cohorts. Aneuploid samples were significantly more likely to not return a result; the number of aneuploidy samples was especially increased among samples with low fetal fraction. This underscores the importance of redraws or, in rare cases, invasive procedures based on low fetal fraction.
II.
To determine the effect of maternal age on the average number of euploid embryos retrieved during oocyte harvest as part of an in vitro fertilization (IVF) cycle, including the probability of ...retrieving at least one euploid embryo in a cohort (PrE).
Retrospective study.
Preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) laboratory.
Women aged 18 to 48 years undergoing IVF treatment.
Use of 24-chromosome single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)-based PGS of day-3 and day-5 embryo biopsies.
Relationships between maternal age and the rate of embryos that tested as euploid (hereafter referred to as “euploid embryos”), the average number and proportion of euploid embryos per IVF cycle, and PrE.
We analyzed 22,599 day-3 embryos and 15,112 day-5 embryos. In women aged 27 to 35 years, the median proportion of euploid embryos in each cycle remained constant at ∼35% in day-3 biopsies and ∼55% in day-5 biopsies, but it decreased rapidly after age 35. On average, women in their late 20s had four euploid embryos (day 3 or day 5) per cycle, but this number decreased linearly (R2 ≥ 0.983) after 35 years of age. The effect of maternal age on PrE was similar, with a rapid exponential decline (R2 = 0.986). Across all maternal ages, the euploid proportion and number of embryos per cycle were counterbalanced, so the number of euploid embryos per cycle was the same for day-3 and day-5 biopsies. This suggests that the loss of embryos from day 3 to day 5 was primarily due to aneuploidy.
Our results confirm the known inverse relationship between advanced maternal age (>35 years) and embryo euploidy, demonstrating that equal numbers of euploid embryos are available at day 3 and day 5.
Objective We sought to report on laboratory and clinical experience following 6 months of clinical implementation of a single-nucleotide polymorphism–based noninvasive prenatal aneuploidy test in ...high- and low-risk women. Study Design All samples received from March through September 2013 and drawn ≥9 weeks’ gestation were included. Samples that passed quality control were analyzed for trisomy 21, trisomy 18, trisomy 13, and monosomy X. Results were reported as high or low risk for fetal aneuploidy for each interrogated chromosome. Relationships between fetal fraction and gestational age and maternal weight were analyzed. Follow-up on outcome was sought for a subset of high-risk cases. False-negative results were reported voluntarily by providers. Positive predictive value (PPV) was calculated from cases with an available prenatal or postnatal karyotype or clinical evaluation at birth. Results Samples were received from 31,030 patients, 30,705 met study criteria, and 28,739 passed quality-control metrics and received a report detailing aneuploidy risk. Fetal fraction correlated positively with gestational age, and negatively with maternal weight. In all, 507 patients received a high-risk result for any of the 4 tested conditions (324 trisomy 21, 82 trisomy 18, 41 trisomy 13, 61 monosomy X; including 1 double aneuploidy case). Within the 17,885 cases included in follow-up analysis, 356 were high risk, and outcome information revealed 184 (51.7%) true positives, 38 (10.7%) false positives, 19 (5.3%) with ultrasound findings suggestive of aneuploidy, 36 (10.1%) spontaneous abortions without karyotype confirmation, 22 (6.2%) terminations without karyotype confirmation, and 57 (16.0%) lost to follow-up. This yielded an 82.9% PPV for all aneuploidies, and a 90.9% PPV for trisomy 21. The overall PPV for women aged ≥35 years was similar to the PPV for women aged <35 years. Two patients were reported as false negatives. Conclusion The data from this large-scale report on clinical application of a commercially available noninvasive prenatal test suggest that the clinical performance of this single-nucleotide polymorphism–based noninvasive prenatal test in a mixed high- and low-risk population is consistent with performance in validation studies.
OBJECTIVE: To characterize chromosomal error types and parental origin of aneuploidy in cleavage-stage embryos using an informatics-based technique that enables the elucidation of aneuploidy-causing ...mechanisms. DESIGN: Analysis of blastomeres biopsied from cleavage-stage embryos for preimplantation genetic screening during IVF. SETTING: Laboratory. PATIENT(S): Couples undergoing IVF treatment. INTERVENTION(S): Two hundred seventy-four blastomeres were subjected to array-based genotyping and informatics-based techniques to characterize chromosomal error types and parental origin of aneuploidy across all 24 chromosomes. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURE(S): Chromosomal error types (monosomy vs. trisomy; mitotic vs. meiotic) and parental origin (maternal vs. paternal). RESULT(S): The rate of maternal meiotic trisomy rose significantly with age, whereas other types of trisomy showed no correlation with age. Trisomies were mostly maternal in origin, whereas paternal and maternal monosomies were roughly equal in frequency. No examples of paternal meiotic trisomy were observed. Segmental error rates were found to be independent of maternal age. CONCLUSION(S): All types of aneuploidy that rose with increasing maternal age can be attributed to disjunction errors during meiosis of the oocyte. Chromosome gains were predominantly maternal in origin and occurred during meiosis, whereas chromosome losses were not biased in terms of parental origin of the chromosome. The ability to determine the parental origin for each chromosome, as well as being able to detect whether multiple homologs from a single parent were present, allowed greater insights into the origin of aneuploidy.
We present a case of a large intra-abdominal mass found to be localized pure seminoma within a retained gonad of a 53-year-old phenotypic female with 46,XY differences in sex development (DSD) and ...androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS). Our management included extirpation of the mass with contralateral gonadectomy. Historically, patients with AIS would undergo gonadectomy to mitigate the lifetime risk of testicular germ cell tumor development; however, growing evidence suggests safety in retention and surveillance of these gonads into adulthood. This case highlights the importance of lifetime surveillance of patients with 46,XY DSD who elect to retain their gonads.
MRI-guided transurethral ultrasound ablation (TULSA) is under investigation for whole-gland ablation of low- and intermediate-risk prostate cancer. The ideal method for post-TULSA bladder drainage ...through postoperative suprapubic tube (SPT)
indwelling urethral catheter (UC) has not been established. The objective of this study was to evaluate urinary outcomes after whole-gland TULSA, comparing postoperative SPT with UC.
Two-institution retrospective analysis of whole-gland TULSA for men with grade group 1 and 2 prostate cancer. One institution placed SPT at the time of TULSA with clamp trials (day 10) and removal once voiding. The second placed UC until void trial (day 7). Outcomes included the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS), urinary bother score, catheter reinsertion, stricture, clean intermittent catheterization (CIC), and incontinence.
Forty-five patients (median age 67) were analyzed. The UC cohort (
= 26) was older (
= 0.007) than the SPT cohort (
= 19) but with similar baseline prostate volumes, IPSS, and urinary bother scores. Patients receiving UC had fewer days with catheter (
= 0.013). Although UC patients suffered more lower urinary tract symptoms at 1-month post-TULSA, there was no significant difference between IPSS scores at baseline and 6 months after surgery regardless of urinary management strategy, although the UC group noted significantly decreased urinary bother. Rates of infection were similar between groups. Six strictures were observed overall, with more in the SPT group, although the difference was not significant (4/19 21.1% SPT; 2/26 7.7% UC). At 6 months, incontinence rates were low and similar between groups (2/19 10.5% SPT; 4/26 15.4% UC) and only one patient (UC) required CIC.
Our overall findings suggest that SPT and UC are both acceptable options for postoperative bladder drainage after whole-gland TULSA, with statistically similar rates of urinary complications but a slightly different side effect profile.
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